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Exercise 721Calculus › Single-variable calculus › Differentiation › Mean Value TheoremL2Added 2 Nov 2026

Fixed point and a derivative bounded by one

#fixed points#mean value theorem#intermediate value theorem

Statement

Let f:[0,1]→[0,1]f:[0,1]\to[0,1] be differentiable with ∣f′(x)∣<1|f'(x)|<1 for all x∈[0,1]x\in[0,1]. Show that ff has exactly one fixed point in [0,1][0,1].

Hint

Existence: apply the intermediate value theorem to g(x)=f(x)−xg(x)=f(x)-x. Uniqueness: apply the mean value theorem to two fixed points.

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Solution

Existence. g(x)=f(x)−xg(x)=f(x)-x is continuous with g(0)=f(0)≥0g(0)=f(0)\ge0 and g(1)=f(1)−1≤0g(1)=f(1)-1\le0. If one of them is 00 we are done; otherwise g(0)>0>g(1)g(0)>0>g(1) and the intermediate value theorem gives c∈(0,1)c\in(0,1) with g(c)=0g(c)=0, i.e. f(c)=cf(c)=c.

Uniqueness. Suppose u<vu<v are two fixed points. By the mean value theorem there exists ξ∈(u,v)\xi\in(u,v) with f(v)−f(u)=f′(ξ)(v−u)f(v)-f(u)=f'(\xi)(v-u). Since f(u)=uf(u)=u and f(v)=vf(v)=v, this reads v−u=f′(ξ)(v−u)v-u=f'(\xi)(v-u), so f′(ξ)=1f'(\xi)=1, contradicting ∣f′∣<1|f'|<1.

Remark. The hypothesis can be weakened to "∣f′∣≤k<1|f'|\le k<1": the map is then a *contraction*, and for any starting point x0x_0 the sequence xn+1=f(xn)x_{n+1}=f(x_n) converges to the fixed point (Banach's fixed point theorem).