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Exercise 29Calculus › Single-variable calculus › Integration › Improper integralsM1Added 2 Nov 2026

An improper integral of a rational function

#improper integrals#arctangent#convergence

Statement

Does ∫0+∞dx1+x2\displaystyle\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^2} converge? If so, compute it.

Hint

An antiderivative is arctan⁡x\arctan x. Integrate on [0,R][0,R] and let R→+∞R\to+\infty.

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Solution

Definition. An improper integral ∫0+∞f\int_0^{+\infty}f converges if lim⁡R→+∞∫0Rf\lim_{R\to+\infty}\int_0^Rf exists and is finite.

Computation. For R>0R>0, ∫0Rdx1+x2=arctan⁡R−arctan⁡0=arctan⁡R→π2\int_0^R\frac{dx}{1+x^2}=\arctan R-\arctan0=\arctan R\to\frac\pi2 as R→+∞R\to+\infty.

Answer. It converges, and
∫0+∞dx1+x2=π2.\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^2}=\frac\pi2.

Remark. The region under 11+x2\frac1{1+x^2} is infinitely long but has finite area π2\frac\pi2, because the curve decays like 1x2\frac1{x^2}, fast enough.