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Exercise 715Calculus › Single-variable calculus › LimitsL1Added 1 Nov 2026

sin(1/x) has no limit at 0

#sequences#non-existence of limits

Statement

Prove that f(x)=sin⁡1xf(x)=\sin\dfrac1x has no limit as x→0x\to0.

Hint

If ff had a limit LL, then f(xn)→Lf(x_n)\to L for every sequence xn→0x_n\to0 with xn≠0x_n\neq0. Find two sequences that give different values.

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Solution

The method. To show that a limit does not exist, it is enough to find two sequences tending to 00 along which ff has different limits.

First sequence. Let an=1nπa_n=\dfrac1{n\pi}. Then an→0a_n\to0 and f(an)=sin⁡(nπ)=0f(a_n)=\sin(n\pi)=0 for all nn. So if the limit exists, it equals 00.

Second sequence. Let bn=1π2+2nπb_n=\dfrac1{\frac\pi2+2n\pi}. Then bn→0b_n\to0 and f(bn)=sin⁡(π2+2nπ)=1f(b_n)=\sin\left(\frac\pi2+2n\pi\right)=1 for all nn. So if the limit exists, it equals 11.

Conclusion. The limit would have to equal both 00 and 11, which is impossible. Hence sin⁡1x\sin\frac1x has no limit at 00.

Remark. On every interval (0,ε)(0,\varepsilon) the function takes every value in [−1,1][-1,1] infinitely often, which is why it cannot settle down.