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Exercise 162Linear algebra › Linear mapsL1Added 3 Nov 2026

Projection onto a subspace

#orthogonal projection#linear map#kernel and image

Statement

Let F⊆RnF\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n be a subspace with orthonormal basis (u1,…,uk)(u_1,\ldots,u_k) for the standard inner product. Define p(x)=∑i=1k⟨x,ui⟩uip(x)=\sum_{i=1}^k\langle x,u_i\rangle u_i. Show that pp is linear, compute ker⁡p\ker p and Im⁡p\operatorname{Im} p, and check p2=pp^2=p.

Hint

Linearity of pp comes from linearity of the inner product in its first variable. For the kernel, use the fact that the uiu_i are linearly independent and span FF.

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Solution

Linearity. For x,y∈Rnx,y\in\mathbb{R}^n and λ∈R\lambda\in\mathbb{R}:
p(x+λy)=∑i(⟨x,ui⟩+λ⟨y,ui⟩)ui=p(x)+λp(y).p(x+\lambda y)=\sum_i\big(\langle x,u_i\rangle+\lambda\langle y,u_i\rangle\big)u_i=p(x)+\lambda p(y).

Image. p(x)p(x) is a combination of the uiu_i, so Im⁡p⊆F\operatorname{Im} p\subseteq F. Conversely, if x∈Fx\in F, its expansion in the orthonormal basis is x=∑i⟨x,ui⟩ui=p(x)x=\sum_i\langle x,u_i\rangle u_i=p(x), so x∈Im⁡px\in\operatorname{Im} p. Hence Im⁡p=F\operatorname{Im} p=F, and pp is the identity on FF.

Kernel. The uiu_i are linearly independent (orthonormal), so p(x)=0  ⟺  ⟨x,ui⟩=0p(x)=0\iff\langle x,u_i\rangle=0 for all ii. Since the uiu_i span FF, this holds iff x⊥Fx\perp F. Hence ker⁡p=F⊥\ker p=F^\perp.

Idempotence. p(x)∈Fp(x)\in F and pp is the identity on FF, so p(p(x))=p(x)p(p(x))=p(x).

Conclusion. pp is the orthogonal projection onto FF: Im⁡p=F\operatorname{Im} p=F, ker⁡p=F⊥\ker p=F^\perp, p2=pp^2=p. Moreover x=p(x)+(x−p(x))x=p(x)+(x-p(x)) with p(x)∈Fp(x)\in F and x−p(x)∈ker⁡p=F⊥x-p(x)\in\ker p=F^\perp (because p(x−p(x))=p(x)−p2(x)=0p(x-p(x))=p(x)-p^2(x)=0), so Rn=F⊕F⊥\mathbb{R}^n=F\oplus F^\perp.