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Exercise 756Calculus › Single-variable calculus › Continuity › Intermediate Value TheoremL1Added 2 Nov 2026

tan x = x on each branch

#intermediate value theorem#tangent#monotonicity

Statement

For k≥1k\ge1 let Ik=(kπ−π2, kπ+π2)I_k=\left(k\pi-\frac\pi2,\,k\pi+\frac\pi2\right). Show that the equation tan⁡x=x\tan x=x has exactly one solution in each interval IkI_k.

Hint

Study φ(x)=tan⁡x−x\varphi(x)=\tan x-x on IkI_k: its derivative is tan⁡2x\tan^2x, and its limits at the endpoints are infinite.

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Solution

Monotonicity. On IkI_k, tan⁡\tan is differentiable and φ′(x)=1cos⁡2x−1=tan⁡2x≥0\varphi'(x)=\frac1{\cos^2x}-1=\tan^2x\ge0, with equality only at x=kπx=k\pi (a single point). So φ\varphi is strictly increasing on IkI_k.

Limits at the endpoints. As x→(kπ−π2)+x\to\left(k\pi-\frac\pi2\right)^+, tan⁡x→−∞\tan x\to-\infty, so φ→−∞\varphi\to-\infty. As x→(kπ+π2)−x\to\left(k\pi+\frac\pi2\right)^-, tan⁡x→+∞\tan x\to+\infty, so φ→+∞\varphi\to+\infty.

Conclusion. φ\varphi is continuous and strictly increasing from −∞-\infty to +∞+\infty on IkI_k. By the intermediate value theorem it vanishes at least once, and by strict monotonicity at most once. So there is exactly one solution xk∈Ikx_k\in I_k.

More precisely. Since φ(kπ)=−kπ<0\varphi(k\pi)=-k\pi<0, we have xk∈(kπ, kπ+π2)x_k\in\left(k\pi,\,k\pi+\frac\pi2\right).